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Explore the Incident Command System (ICS), its components, and its role in effective emergency management. Learn how ICS enhances coordination, communication, and control during incidents of any size, ensuring efficient response and resource management.

1. Why is housekeeping important during renovations?

A It ensures proper ventilation B It improves air quality C It prevents structural collapse D Accumulated rubbish can start fires

2. What is a common cause of larger, nonconfined hotel and motel fires?

A Electrical malfunctions B Open flames from candles C Improper welding operations D Cooking accidents

3. What is the primary function of a task force in incident management?

A To coordinate interagency issues B To provide public information C To manage financial resources D To perform a specific assignment with a group of resources

4. Which major functional area of the ICS is responsible for the direction and coordination of all tactical operations?

A Operations B Logistics C Finance/Administration D Planning

5. What is the role of the Public Information Officer (PIO) within the ICS?

A To coordinate resource allocation B To develop operational plans C To manage logistics support D To provide information to the public during an emergency

6. What does MACS stand for in the context of incident management?

A Management and Command Systems B Management and Coordination Systems C Multi-agency Coordination Systems D Multi-agency Communication Systems

7. What is the purpose of an Initial Status Report during an incident?

A To identify command B To announce a location for staging C To request additional units if needed D To provide data on the current conditions and disposition of occupants

8. What is the purpose of revising action plans regularly during an incident?

A To reduce paperwork B To train new responders C To maintain consistent, up-to-date guidance across the system D To comply with legal requirements

9. What is a significant challenge in ventilation operations for buildings with limited window openings?

A Higher chances of structural collapse B Increased risk of fire spread C Limited effectiveness of ventilation efforts D Difficulty in accessing the building

10. Why might forcible entry not be feasible in penal institutions during a fire?

A Limited exits and security measures B Presence of hazardous materials C High-rise structure D Complex building layout

11. What is the primary reason for shutting down HVAC systems during an active shooter incident?

A To prevent the spread of smoke or tear gas B To reduce noise levels C To prevent system overload D To conserve energy

12. What is a potential hazard of wrapping a building in sheet plastic during renovations?

A It can cause water damage B It can increase electrical hazards C It can block emergency exits D It can contribute to a fast-moving fire

13. Which ICS form is used to outline the operational planning worksheet?

A ICS Form 215 B ICS Form 202 C ICS Form 203 D ICS Form 206

14. What is a live load in the context of building stability?

A The total weight of the building components B A load that a building was not originally designed to carry C The weight of material in a building that is not permanent D A weight forced upon a building

15. Which component of an Incident Action Plan specifies how functional areas can exchange information?

A Health and safety plan B Communications plan C Logistics plan D Traffic plan

16. What is an indicator of a potential partition fire in a renovated building?

A Continued heat and smoke generation after visible fire is knocked down B Excessive water in a building C Bulging walls D Presence of wall spreaders

17. What is a significant risk associated with the use of lightweight structural members in renovated buildings?

A Higher water absorption during firefighting B Increased potential of collapse under fire attack C Reduced fire spread due to compartmentation D Increased difficulty in ventilation

18. Why might TICs (Thermal Imaging Cameras) be particularly useful during renovations?

A To measure the temperature of the fire B To check walls, ceilings, and floors for hidden fire C To monitor the water supply D To locate combustible materials

19. How can heavy timber or noncombustible outbuildings pose a collapse potential?

A Due to lack of maintenance B Due to their construction materials and design C Because they are often abandoned D Because of their height

20. What is a critical step before starting triage and treatment at an active shooter incident?

A Identifying all victims B Setting up a command post C Evacuating all occupants D Ensuring the scene is declared safe by the police

21. What is the primary purpose of an Incident Action Plan (IAP)?

A To document the incident timeline B To list all available resources for the incident C To outline incident objectives, strategies, tactics, and support activities D To provide a communication plan for all agencies involved

22. What is the optimal span of control in the Incident Command System (ICS)?

A Three B Five C Seven D Ten

23. What is the role of a Group Supervisor in ICS?

A To coordinate with external agencies B To manage specific functional areas or groups within an incident C To handle public information dissemination D To oversee all operations at the incident scene

24. Why is common terminology important in ICS?

A To ensure clear and consistent communication among all personnel B To reduce the number of communication devices needed C To simplify training procedures D To limit the number of personnel involved

25. When should a written Incident Action Plan (IAP) be considered?

A For incidents lasting less than an hour B When multiple jurisdictions are involved or the incident is of long duration C When only one agency is involved D For every minor incident

26. What is the primary purpose of an Incident Support Team (IST)?

A To support and mentor the local Incident Management Team (IMT) B To provide financial resources for the incident C To take over the incident from the local IMT D To manage the entire incident independently

27. Which type of incident typically requires a written Incident Action Plan (IAP) for each operational period?

A Type 2 B Type 3 C Type 5 D Type 4

28. What is a key characteristic of a Type 5 incident?

A The incident is typically contained within an hour or two after resources arrive on scene B The incident extends beyond local control capabilities C A written IAP is required for each operational period D Several resources are required to mitigate the incident

29. What is the main advantage of a Fixed Facility EOC?

A It exists solely or partially in cyberspace B It allows for optimal interaction between the IMT and the Policy Group C It reduces delays in the arrival of senior officials and staff personnel D It can be relocated quickly to different areas

30. What is a disadvantage of the Major Management Activities structure in an EOC?

A It creates confusion about authority at the incident scene B There is a weak link with on-scene commanders C It does not allow key problem-solvers to contribute to decision making D It has complex lines of communication and chain of command

31. What is the role of ESF #8 in the Emergency Support Function (ESF) structure?

A Public Health and Medical Services B Transportation C Resource Support D Firefighting

32. Which organization is commonly included in a Multi-agency Coordinating (MAC) Group for its technical expertise despite lacking hard resources?

A American Red Cross B Faith-based charities C Local Chamber of Commerce D Salvation Army

33. What is a significant disadvantage of the ESF structure at the local level?

A Complex coordination with federal agencies B Lack of required depth of personnel, training, and expertise C Inconsistent communication protocols D Limited access to resources

34. What is a primary function of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC) in incident management?

A Conducting search and rescue operations B Managing on-scene tactical operations C Hub for communications with other levels of government, private sector, and public D Providing direct medical care

35. What is a key requirement for effective communication at an EOC according to NIMS?

A Exclusive use of digital communication B Limited access protocols C Single communication channel D Interoperability and redundancy

36. What is the primary purpose of ICS Form 202?

A To outline Incident Objectives B To detail the Radio Communications Plan C To list organizational assignments D To provide the Medical Plan

37. Which ICS form is used to prepare the Radio Communications Plan?

A ICS Form 206 B ICS Form 203 C ICS Form 202 D ICS Form 205

38. What does the Planning 'P' describe in incident management?

A The development of the Medical Plan B The creation of the Safety Message C The final step of executing the plan D The initial response period and needed actions once the incident begins

39. What is a key characteristic of incident objectives written in a S.M.A.R.T. format?

A They are Simple, Manageable, Accurate, Reliable, and Timeless B They are Specific, Measurable, Action-oriented, Realistic, and Timely C They are Specific, Manageable, Action-oriented, Realistic, and Time-bound D They are Strategic, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, and Time-bound

40. What is the primary advantage of cue-based decision making in emergency operations?

A It requires extensive analysis of all available data B It follows a long and precise step-by-step process C It is primarily used for training exercises D It allows for extremely rapid decision making based on experience and training

41. What is the recommended angle for placing a ladder during firefighting operations?

A 60 degrees B 75 degrees C 90 degrees D 80 degrees

42. What is the primary purpose of using a leg lock or safety belt when working from a ladder?

A To increase speed B As a safety measure C To carry tools D To improve visibility

43. Why should firefighters avoid stepping onto cut portions of a trench during ventilation operations?

A Because they are unsupported B Because they are hot C Because they are slippery D Because they are narrow

44. What should be done before operating a positive pressure fan in a building?

A Know the status of the building’s occupants B Secure all exits C Turn off all utilities D Check the weather conditions

45. What is the main hazard associated with rooftop PV systems during daylight?

A They are always on and cannot be shut off B They attract lightning C They are slippery when wet D They block ventilation

46. What is the primary focus of the communication factor in CRM?

A Speaking indirectly B Speaking directly and respectfully C Using technical jargon D Avoiding difficult conversations

47. In an offensive fire attack, what is the first hose-line's primary responsibility?

A To protect civilians who are still exiting the building or in need of rescue B To extinguish the fire immediately C To secure the perimeter D To protect firefighters only

48. When should a defensive mode of fire attack be initiated?

A When the fire is small and manageable B When civilians are trapped inside C When there are sufficient resources on scene D When a fire is beyond the control of handlines

49. What is a key consideration for hose-line placement in unoccupied buildings?

A To cut off the fire spread B To secure windows and doors C To block stairwells D To protect the roof

50. Why should hose-lines be run first through doorways rather than windows?

A Windows are easier to access B Doorways require less hose length C Doorways allow quicker entry and exit D Windows provide better ventilation