1. Who is responsible for investigating fires or explosions of suspicious origin within the commonwealth?
A The marshal B The fire department head C The police chief D The commissioner of insurance
2. What can the marshal do if he believes the evidence from an investigation is sufficient to charge a person with a crime?
A Report to the commissioner of insurance B Dismiss the case C File a civil lawsuit D Make a complaint and furnish proper officers with evidence and witness names
3. What action can be taken against false testimony given during an investigation by the marshal?
A It shall be considered perjury B It will be ignored C It will result in a fine D It will be reported to the fire department
4. Under what conditions can the marshal or fire department head enter buildings and premises to investigate fire hazards?
A At any reasonable hour and upon complaint of an interested person B Only with a warrant C Only in case of an emergency D Only during business hours
5. What must be done if combustible rubbish is found in a building or on premises during an investigation?
A Issue a verbal warning B Evacuate the building C Order the conditions to be remedied in writing D Report it to the police
6. What must be done if an order to remove combustible rubbish is not complied with within twenty-four hours?
A The building will be condemned. B The owner will be fined immediately. C The refuse may be removed at the expense of the owner or occupant. D The police will be called to enforce the order.
7. What happens if the expenses for removing combustible rubbish are incurred by the commonwealth or a city?
A The owner is jailed until payment is made. B The debt is forgiven. C The property is seized. D It becomes a debt due to the commonwealth or city.
8. Which buildings must be protected with an adequate system of automatic sprinklers according to Section 26A?
A Buildings more than seventy feet in height B Buildings used for residential purposes C Buildings with a basement D Buildings with more than four floors
9. Who is responsible for enforcing the provisions regarding automatic sprinklers in high-rise buildings?
A The marshal B The city council C The head of the fire department D The building owner
10. What is the time frame within which an aggrieved person can appeal the fire department head's decision regarding automatic sprinklers?
A Ninety days B Thirty days C Forty-five days D Sixty days
11. Who is responsible for serving notice of an order to remove combustible rubbish?
A The building inspector. B The city mayor. C The health department. D A member of the fire or police department.
12. What is the maximum fine for failing to comply with an order to remove combustible rubbish?
A Seventy-five dollars per month. B Twenty-five dollars per day. C Fifty dollars for each consecutive forty-eight hours of non-compliance. D One hundred dollars per week.
13. Who acts in place of the mayor or board of selectmen in matters related to liens for debts incurred by removing combustible rubbish?
A The marshal or head of the fire department. B The police chief. C The city treasurer. D The building inspector.
14. What is required for any building used for the business of manufacturing or storing inflammable goods upon the order of the marshal?
A Fire alarms B Smoke detectors C Automatic sprinklers D Fire extinguishers
15. In which type of rooms are automatic sprinklers not required to be installed according to Section 26A?
A Office rooms B Patient rooms in hospitals C Conference rooms D Storage rooms
16. What type of buildings must be protected with an approved automatic fire warning system according to Section 26B?
A Industrial buildings of any height B Buildings exceeding seventy feet in height occupied for residential purposes C Commercial buildings of any height D Buildings not exceeding seventy feet in height occupied for residential purposes
17. Who is responsible for enforcing the provisions of Section 26B regarding automatic fire warning systems?
A The building owner B The local government C The head of the fire department D The state building code authority
18. What type of detectors must apartment houses with six or more dwelling units be equipped with according to Section 26C?
A Carbon monoxide detectors B Automatic smoke or heat detectors C Sprinkler systems D Manual fire alarms
19. What is the purpose of the audible trouble signal in an approved monitored battery power smoke detector as defined in Section 26D?
A To signal a maintenance requirement B To test the alarm system C To indicate when the battery is incapable of operating the device for alarm purposes D To alert occupants of a fire
20. Within how many days can an aggrieved person appeal the head of the fire department's decision under Section 26B?
A Ninety days B Thirty days C Sixty days D Forty-five days
21. What is the minimum duration for which the power supply of an approved primary power smoke detector must operate the alarm signal?
A At least six continuous minutes B At least eight continuous minutes C At least four continuous minutes D At least two continuous minutes
22. Where must an approved smoke detector be installed in relation to stairways?
A On the wall beside each stairway B At the top of each stairway C On the ceiling of each stairway leading to the floor above, near the base D Within each stairway
23. What defines a 'Separate sleeping area' in a dwelling unit?
A Areas where bedrooms or sleeping rooms are located, separated by other use areas B Areas where only bedrooms are located C Areas where living rooms are located D Areas where kitchens are located
24. Who has the authority to allow the installation of approved monitored battery powered smoke detectors in one and two family dwellings?
A The electrical inspector B The local government C The head of the fire department D The building owner
25. In what type of buildings must approved smoke detectors be installed according to Section 26E?
A Only two family dwellings B Commercial buildings C Only one family dwellings D All one and two family dwellings occupied in whole or in part for residential purposes
26. What type of power source is required for primary power smoke detectors in residential buildings with three to five units?
A Solar-powered source B Alternating current primary source C Battery-powered source D Generator-powered source
27. Who is responsible for enforcing the provisions regarding smoke detectors in residential buildings?
A The property manager B The building owner C The local government D The head of the fire department
28. Where must interconnected primary power smoke detectors be installed in residential buildings with three to five units?
A In the living room B In the kitchen area C In all common hallways and basements D In each bedroom
29. What must be installed outside each separate sleeping area in residential buildings with three to five units?
A Fire extinguishers B Emergency lights C Approved monitored battery powered or primary power smoke detectors D Carbon monoxide detectors
30. What happens to the provisions of section thirty in relation to the enforcement of smoke detector regulations?
A They apply fully B They apply partially C They do not apply D They apply only in certain cases
31. What types of residential structures are required to have carbon monoxide alarms according to Section 26F1/2?
A Only structures with enclosed parking B Only structures with fossil-fuel burning equipment C Structures with fossil-fuel burning equipment or enclosed parking D All residential structures regardless of features
32. Who is responsible for installing and maintaining carbon monoxide alarms in rental properties?
A The building owner B The tenants C The local fire department D The landlord or superintendent
33. What must be done upon the sale or transfer of a residential building regarding carbon monoxide alarms?
A Installation of new alarms B Notification to the local government C Inspection by the head of the fire department D Replacement of batteries in all alarms
34. What additional requirements may the state building code impose for new constructions regarding carbon monoxide alarms?
A No additional requirements B Less strict requirements C Stricter carbon monoxide alarm requirements D Requirements for only specific types of buildings
35. Who is responsible for promulgating regulations related to the type, installation, and maintenance of carbon monoxide alarms?
A The state building code authority B The local fire department C The building owner D The board of fire prevention regulations
36. What is the minimum gross square footage that requires a building to have an automatic sprinkler system according to Section 26G?
A More than 10,000 gross square feet B More than 15,000 gross square feet C More than 7,500 gross square feet D More than 5,000 gross square feet
37. Who is responsible for enforcing the carbon monoxide alarm requirements upon the sale or transfer of a residential building?
A The head of the fire department B The building owner C The state building inspector D The landlord
38. Which type of buildings are exempt from the automatic sprinkler system requirement according to Section 26G?
A Buildings used for commercial purposes B Buildings used for industrial purposes C Buildings used for agricultural purposes D Buildings used for educational purposes
39. What alternative fire suppressant system can be installed in areas where water discharge would be dangerous?
A Other fire suppressant systems prescribed by the state building code B Smoke detectors C Fire-resistant walls D Manual fire extinguishers
40. What percentage of wall area must be open to the atmosphere for a parking structure to be exempt from the sprinkler system requirement?
A At least twenty-five percent B At least thirty percent C At least fifty percent D At least ten percent
41. What is the minimum capacity for a building or structure to require an adequate system of automatic sprinklers according to Section 26G1/2?
A 150 persons B 200 persons C 100 persons D 50 persons
42. Who is responsible for enforcing the provisions of Section 26G1/2 regarding automatic sprinklers in nightclubs and similar venues?
A The nightclub manager B The state governor C The head of the fire department D The building owner
43. What components are included in an 'adequate system of automatic sprinklers' as defined in Section 26G1/2?
A A working automatic sprinkler system, fire alarm system control equipment, and adequate monitoring and reporting B Only adequate monitoring and reporting C Only fire alarm system control equipment D Only a working automatic sprinkler system
44. Within how many days can an aggrieved person appeal the fire department head's decision under Section 26G1/2?
A Forty-five days B Sixty days C Thirty days D Ninety days
45. What alternative can the automatic sprinkler appeals board allow instead of a standard automatic sprinkler system?
A A reasonable alternative or modified system of automatic sprinklers B A temporary sprinkler system C A manual fire suppression system D No alternative is allowed
46. What is the consequence for a business owner who violates the maximum capacity of their establishment for the third time within a 12-month period?
A A $10,000 fine B Mandatory installation of automatic sprinklers C Losing their license to operate in the commonwealth D Temporary closure of the business
47. Within what time frame must a business owner install automatic sprinklers after being cited for a capacity violation?
A Within 1 year B Within 6 months C Within 2 years D Within 3 months
48. What is the penalty for a first or second offense of violating the maximum capacity for a business?
A $20,000 fine B $15,000 fine C $10,000 fine D $5,000 fine
49. Who is responsible for establishing the maximum capacity of a building or structure used for entertainment purposes?
A A duly recognized inspector of buildings B The business owner C The fire department D The state building code authority
50. Under what condition must an existing structure owned by the commonwealth be protected with an automatic sprinkler system?
A If it is used for residential purposes B If it was issued an approved building permit before December 1, 2004 C If it is more than 70 feet in height D If it has a capacity of more than 100 persons
